I would argue that in the case of Latin, it’s in consonant position, historically the stages before and after are unambiguously consonants and I see no reason to analyze it as a vowel (not saying there is none but I’m not aware of any).

In English “raw” is more ambiguous. Historically it comes from vowels but it doesn’t function as one today since it doesn’t trigger strategies to avoid hiatuses for example.

Honesty, one motivation for writing the comments is that I’m glad there is activity in this community and I want to push it. I could use more linguistics in my life so thanks for engaging with me!